As far as I understand, only debt instruments classified as AFS or Amortized Cost be subject to impairment. But I just want to confirm my understanding.
The reason of which is that "impairment" of the FVTPL is already equivalent to the unrealised loss.
The reason why I'm asking is that we a debt securities that is matured and is already defaulted (in short no longer traded). We are having a hard time to determine the unrealised loss or the "impairment" as at year-end as we cannot determine cash flow projection as the issuer is not able to provide such.
As at March 31, 2017, the investment still remain unpaid.