in IFRS 9 - Financial Instruments by
As far as I understand, only debt instruments classified as AFS or Amortized Cost be subject to impairment. But I just want to confirm my understanding.

The reason of which is that "impairment" of the FVTPL is already equivalent to the unrealised loss.

The reason why I'm asking is that we a debt securities that is matured and is already defaulted (in short no longer traded). We are having a hard time to determine the unrealised loss or the "impairment" as at year-end as we cannot determine cash flow projection as the issuer is not able to provide such.

As at March 31, 2017, the investment still remain unpaid.

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by Level 5 Member (11.6k points)
Impairment is applicable for all assets other than:

(a) inventories (see IAS 2 Inventories);
(b)contract assets and assets arising from costs to obtain or fulfil a contract that are recognised in accordance with IFRS 15 Revenuefrom Contracts with Customers;
(c)deferred tax assets (see IAS 12 Income Taxes);
(d)assets arising from employee benefits (see IAS 19 EmployeeBenefits);
(e)financial assets that are within the scope of IFRS 9 Financial Instruments;
(f)investment property that is measured at fair value (see IAS 40 Investment Property);
(g)biological assets related to agricultural activity within the scope of IAS 41 Agriculture that are measured at fair value less costs to sell;
(h) deferred acquisition costs, and intangible assets, arising from an insurer’s contractual rights under insurance contracts within the scope of IFRS 4 Insurance Contracts; and
(i) non-current assets (or disposal groups) classified as held for sale in
accordance with IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations.

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